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Product Description:
Exam Number/Code: 200-125
Exam name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
n questions with full explanations
Certification: Cisco Certification

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Testking offers free demo for ccna routing and switching 200 125 official cert guide library exam. "CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)", also known as ccna 200 125 pdf exam, is a Cisco Certification. This set of posts, Passing the Cisco ccna routing and switching 200 125 official cert guide library exam, will help you answer those questions. The ccna 200 125 torrent Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. 100% real Cisco 200 125 ccna pdf exams and revised by experts!

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New Cisco 200-125 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 5 - Question 14)

Q5. Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Answer: A,C,D


Q6. Refer to the exhibit.

While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output. Which information is provided by the Load value?

A. the percentage of use of the link

B. the preference of the link

C. the session count of the link

D. the number source-destination pairs on the link

Answer: D


Q7. Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?

A. It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.

B. It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the

same STP instance.

C. It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.

D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Rapid PVST+This spanning-tree mode is the same as PVST+ except that is uses a rapid convergence based on the IEEE 802.1w standard. To provide rapid convergence, the rapid PVST+ immediately deletes dynamically learned MAC address entries on a per-port basis upon receiving a topology change. By contrast, PVST+ uses a short aging time for dynamically learned MAC address entries.

The rapid PVST+ uses the same configuration as PVST+ (except where noted), and the switch needs only minimal extra configuration. The benefit of rapid PVST+ is that you can migrate a large PVST+ install base to rapid PVST+ without having to learn the complexities of the MSTP configuration and without having to reprovision your network. In rapid-PVST+ mode, each VLAN runs its own spanning-tree instance up to the maximum supported.


Q8. Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?

A. when the network must route UDP traffic

B. when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts

C. when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts

D. when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require outside access

Answer: B

Explanation: NAT operation is typically transparent to both the internal and external hosts. Typically the internal host is aware of the true IP address and TCP or UDP port of the external host. Typically the NAT device may function as the default gateway for the internal host. However the external host is only aware of the public IP address for the NAT device and the particular port being used to communicate on behalf of a specific internal host.

NAT and TCP/UDP

"Pure NAT", operating on IP alone, may or may not correctly parse protocols that are totally concerned with IP information, such asICMP, depending on whether the payload is interpreted by a host on the "inside" or "outside" of translation. As soon as the protocol stack is traversed, even with such basic protocols asTCPandUDP, the protocols will break unless NAT takes action beyond the network layer.

IP packets have a checksum in each packet header, which provides error detection only for the header. IP datagrams may become fragmented and it is necessary for a NAT to reassemble these fragments to allow correct recalculation of higher-level checksums and correct tracking of which packets belong to which connection.

The major transport layer protocols, TCP and UDP, have a checksum that covers all the data they carry, as well as the TCP/UDP header, plus a "pseudo-header" that contains the source and destination IP addresses of the packet carrying the TCP/UDP header. For an originating NAT to pass TCP or UDP successfully, it must recompute the TCP/UDP header checksum based on the translated IP addresses, not the original ones, and put that checksum into the TCP/UDP header of the first packet of the fragmented set of packets. The receiving NAT must recompute the IP checksum on every packet it passes to the destination host, and also recognize and recompute the TCP/UDP header using the retranslated addresses and pseudo-header. This is not a completely solved problem. One solution is for the receiving NAT to reassemble the entire segment and then recompute a checksum calculated across all packets.

The originating host may performMaximum transmission unit(MTU)path discoveryto determine the packet size that can be transmitted without fragmentation, and then set the don't fragment(DF) bit in the appropriate packet header field. Of course, this is only a one- way solution, because the responding host can send packets of any size, which may be fragmented before reaching the NAT.


Q9. When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you are troubleshooting?

A. when you lack proper resources to resolve the issue

B. when you have gathered all available information about the issue

C. when you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 minutes

D. when a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected

Answer: B


Q10. Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?

A. The frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.

B. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.

C. It is configured in enable mode.

D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.

Answer: D

Explanation:

This module describes how to configure an IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Echo operation to monitor end-to-end response time between a Cisco router and devices using IPv4 or IPv6. ICMP Echo is useful for troubleshooting network connectivity issues. This module also demonstrates how the results of the ICMP Echo operation can be displayed and analyzed to determine how the network IP connections are performing.

ICMP Echo Operation

The ICMP Echo operation measures end-to-end response time between a Cisco router and any devices using IP. Response time is computed by measuring the time taken between sending an ICMP Echo request message to the destination and receiving an ICMP Echo reply.

In the figure below ping is used by the ICMP Echo operation to measure the response time

between the source IP SLAs device and the destination IP device. Many customers use IP SLAs ICMP-based operations, in-house ping testing, or ping-based dedicated probes for response time measurements.

Figure 1. ICMP Echo Operation

The IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation conforms to the same IETF specifications for ICMP ping testing and the two methods result in the same response times.


Q11. If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?

A. switch 0004.9A1A.C182

B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3

C. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6

D. switch 0040.0BC0.90C5

Answer: A


Q12. What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They establish broadcast domains in switched networks.

B. They provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.

C. They utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.

D. They can simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

E. They allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.

F. They provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.

Answer: A,D,E


Q13. Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?

A. It is defined globally

B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps.

C. It must be configured if static NAT is used

D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.

Answer: B

Explanation:

This module describes how to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) for IP address conservation and how to configure inside and outside source addresses. This module also provides information about the benefits of configuring NAT for IP address conservation. NAT enables private IP internetworks that use nonregistered IP addresses to connect to the Internet. NAT operates on a device, usually connecting two networks, and translates the private (not globally unique) addresses in the internal network into legal addresses before packets are forwarded onto another network. NAT can be configured to advertise to the outside world only one address for the entire network. This ability provides additional security by effectively hiding the entire internal network behind that one address.

NAT is also used at the enterprise edge to allow internal users access to the Internet and to allow Internet access to internal devices such as mail servers.


Q14. After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?

A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0

B. Router#show run

C. Router#show interface loopback 0

D. Router#show ip interface brief

Answer: A


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